The Brett Kimberlin Saga:

Follow this link to my BLOCKBUSTER STORY of how Brett Kimberlin, a convicted terrorist and perjurer, attempted to frame me for a crime, and then got me arrested for blogging when I exposed that misconduct to the world. That sounds like an incredible claim, but I provide primary documents and video evidence proving that he did this. And if you are moved by this story to provide a little help to myself and other victims of Mr. Kimberlin’s intimidation, such as Robert Stacy McCain, you can donate at the PayPal buttons on the right. And I thank everyone who has done so, and will do so.

Wednesday, February 28, 2018

The Mueller “Russian” Indictment: The Prohibition on Foreign Participation in Elections is Unconstitutional (and a Mess)

So, previously I wrote a piece explaining how the Foreign Agents Registration Act is Unconstitutional, as part of a promised series on the Mueller indictment of thirteen Russian nationals and three Russian companies.  Once again, you can read the indictment, here, and you can search through its text, here, and, bluntly, you might want to read that prior piece on the Foreign Registration Act, because this piece is going to build off of that analysis.  In other words, you really might not get what I am trying to tell you unless you read that other piece.

And yes, this will be a long one.

So let me start by saying that I am not saying that non-citizens should be allowed to vote.  But federal law prohibits participation by “foreigners” to a far greater degree than voting.  Here’s the statute in question, 52 U.S.C. § 30121:

(a)       Prohibition It shall be unlawful for—

(1)       a foreign national, directly or indirectly, to make—

(A)       a contribution or donation of money or other thing of value, or to make an express or implied promise to make a contribution or donation, in connection with a Federal, State, or local election;

(B)       a contribution or donation to a committee of a political party; or

(C)       an expenditure, independent expenditure, or disbursement for an electioneering communication (within the meaning of section 30104(f)(3) of this title); or

Now, the first problem starts when you look up the term “foreign national.”  From the same statute:

(a)               “Foreign national” defined As used in this section, the term “foreign national” means—

(1)       a foreign principal, as such term is defined by section 611(b) of title 22, except that the term “foreign national” shall not include any individual who is a citizen of the United States; or

(2)       an individual who is not a citizen of the United States or a national of the United States (as defined in section 1101(a)(22) of title 8) and who is not lawfully admitted for permanent residence, as defined by section 1101(a)(20) of title 8.

Now, here it is important that you read the last post.  First, with respect to subsection (2) you might remember that I explained that the word “individual” is code for “flesh and blood human beings”—as opposed to artificial “persons” such as corporations and partnerships, so now you know what that term means in subsection (2).  Further, in the last post got through the definition of “foreign principal” mentioned in subsection (1).  The only thing to add to that is that while the term “foreign principal” can mean a U.S. citizen in relation to the Foreign Agents Registration Act, U.S. citizens can never be a Foreign National under this subsection (2).  So if you didn’t read the previous post, now might be a good time.

Also, subsection (2) uses some terms that might need explaining.  For instance, it talks about the idea of a national of the United States.  That is defined in this statute as “(A) a citizen of the United States, or (B) a person who, though not a citizen of the United States, owes permanent allegiance to the United States.”  I’ll be honest, I didn’t know for sure what that phrase “owes personal allegiance to the United States” while not being citizens until I came across this page from the Citizenship and Immigration Service, where they explain that they are referring to the people in places like American Samoa, where they are not citizens but nonetheless owe America their allegiance.

Which still might be confusing to many readers, in part because what is happening is frankly unjust and, in my opinion, unconstitutional (contrary to what the courts have found so far).  But what they are getting at is the concept of treason.  If I, an American citizen who has lived his whole life in America, up and joined ISIS and bombed a train station in Germany, that wouldn’t be treason against Germany because I owe no allegiance to Germany—I’m not a German citizen, and you’d have to go back to my great-grandparents to find someone who ever set foot in the country.  But if I joined ISIS and bombed a train station in New York City, that could be treason.  Further, even though a person born in American Samoa is denied citizenship in America, the law claims he or she owes allegiance to this country, so that if he or she joins ISIS and bombs a train station in New York City, that is also treason.  That is, it is treason against a country that doesn’t even give that person citizenship in America as the Fourteenth Amendment demands.  But while people born in American Samoa are denied citizenship in what I consider a continuing injustice, at least they can speak freely like any citizen under this statute.

Meanwhile the phrase “who is not lawfully admitted for permanent residence, as defined by section 1101(a)(20) of title 8” is more obvious.  They mean pretty much green card holders.  So basically if you are a human and you are outside of the country, and you aren’t a citizen, you are a foreign national.  However, if you are a real person and either here illegally, or you are here legally, but not permanently, you are also a foreign national.  So for instance, this applies if you are here legally, but on a tourist visa.  Or there are visas just for temporary work or training in America.  Those people are subject to those limitations on their freedom of expression.

And is that all?  Well, if you read my last post, you would know that because the term “foreign principal” uses the word “includes,” there is an unknown and undefined subset of persons (real people or entities) who might still be foreign principals and therefore possibly foreign nationals under the statute I am examining today.  And that is a problem, because it is the very definition of vague.  The only good news is that the statute makes it pretty clear that a citizen never falls under these limitations under any circumstances.  But as I pointed out, if the law is too vague and it impacts the right of free speech, that vagueness can render it unconstitutional.

And what are these foreign nationals banned from doing?  Well, first, they cannot donate directly to campaigns or political parties, roughly speaking.  Second, an expenditure for an “electioneering communication.”

It’s the second part of that which is concerning and I will focus on.  Consider for example, what the Supreme Court said in Citizens United v. FEC, about the law they struck down in that case:

The law before us is an outright ban, backed by criminal sanctions. Section 441b makes it a felony for all corporations—including nonprofit advocacy corporations—either to expressly advocate the election or defeat of candidates or to broadcast electioneering communications within 30 days of a primary election and 60 days of a general election. Thus, the following acts would all be felonies under § 441b: The Sierra Club runs an ad, within the crucial phase of 60 days before the general election, that exhorts the public to disapprove of a Congressman who favors logging in national forests; the National Rifle Association publishes a book urging the public to vote for the challenger because the incumbent U.S. Senator supports a handgun ban; and the American Civil Liberties Union creates a Web site telling the public to vote for a Presidential candidate in light of that candidate’s defense of free speech. These prohibitions are classic examples of censorship.

“But, wait...” you might say, “liberals constantly claim that this decision was about legalizing expenditures.”  Well, that is right in one sense and highly misleading in another.  None of those laws are triggered unless some money is spent, but it only requires some money.  So, for instance, if on November 1, 2008 (three days before that year’s presidential election), you bought 1) a printer, 2) paper and 3) ink, and used them to publish a bunch of pamphlets saying “don’t vote for Barack Obama” that you handed out by walking door-to-door in your neighborhood, that is an expenditure for an electioneering communication in relation to the Presidential election and, potentially, a crime under this analysis.

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Sidebar: If there is one mistake in the analysis in Citizens United, it is a tactical one.  From the first big campaign finance case, Buckley v. Valeo, down to today, the courts constantly talks about it being a matter of free speech.  The problem with that is that at the founding of the First Amendment, freedom of speech meant “freedom to shout as loud as you can.”  Today “speech” can be a vital part of mass media, but back then, the only mass media was the printing press, and thus freedom of the press was a right to engage in mass media.  Freedom of speech, at the founding, was also “free” in the sense that it was costless.  But freedom of the press has always required money to allow you to exercise that right.  It is difficult for a person to understand that “money is speech,” but it is easy to see how obtaining, keeping and spending money can be vital to the press.

For example, imagine if Congress passed a law prohibiting the purchase of ink and paper if it was to be used to create statements critical of the president.  The average person wouldn’t have a difficult time understanding how that law is unconstitutional.  And by extension, that person would have little difficulty understanding how it applies to the internet, now that it is the primary vehicle by which the printed word is distributed—on news sites, Twitter, Facebook and even blogs like this one—so it is not hard to make a regular person understand that it is impossible to engage in the right of freedom of the press without spending money.  I mean yes, Twitter is free, and so is Blogspot, but the computer I am writing on is not free, and neither is my internet connection or the electricity I am using.  And even the more primitive forms of written expression—a pencil and a notebook, perhaps—requires you to spend money.  It is far easier to make a person understand that the right to get money and property (hard to write on paper, if you can’t own paper and a pencil), to keep that money and property and to exchange that money and property is necessary to freedom of the press, compared to freedom of speech.  I am not saying the Supreme Court is wrong—in modern media, it’s hard to exercise freedom of speech meaningfully without spending money, because without money your speech reaches only as far as your voice—but it is easier for the mind to process it through the lens of freedom of the press.  And thus Citizens United and their ilk should have discussed the matter through the lens of freedom of the press.

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A deeper way to understand what the Supreme Court was saying in Citizens United is to realize that the law the Supreme Court struck down didn’t prohibit spending generally.  If you want to spend the exact same amount of money to buy cars, Legos, or fruit for your own use you didn’t break the law.  It wasn’t even illegal to spend that money to engage in most forms of communications.  It was only if you spent that money on a certain kind of expression.  So to pretend that this law was about spending and not expression is just dishonest.  And the only question is whether the person saying that is lying, or they are being lied to (which is sadly common).

Like the law struck down in Citizens United, the statute I have been examining declares that a large group of real persons and entities are prohibited from making campaign expenditures—non-citizens of any kind in a foreign country, and illegal immigrants and temporary immigrants/visitors to our country.  They cannot express themselves as freely as anyone else.

“But, hey,” you might say, “that’s being done to foreigners.  Screw them.

But look how quickly you can recreate that paragraph I quote from Citizens United, by substituting persons prohibited from speaking under this law:

The law before us is an outright ban, backed by criminal sanctions. 52 U.S. Code § 30121 makes it a felony for all foreign nationals—including nonprofit advocacy corporations—either to expressly advocate the election or defeat of candidates or to broadcast electioneering communications within 30 days of a primary election and 60 days of a general election. Thus, the following acts would all be felonies under 52 U.S. Code § 30121: Médecins Sans Frontières runs an ad, within the crucial phase of 60 days before the general election, that exhorts the public to disapprove of a Congressman who opposes spending on international epidemics that might eventually reach our shores; an illegal immigrant self-publishes a book urging the public to vote for the challenger because the incumbent U.S. Senator wishes to end DACA; and Malala Yousafzai creates a website telling Americans to vote for a presidential candidate in light of his support of international efforts to increase women’s education. These prohibitions are classic examples of censorship.

As for the law, the Supreme Court hasn’t said one way or the other whether the right to express oneself applies overseas, but one does not have to be a citizen to invoke one’s right to be silent (that is, your Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination).  For instance, in U.S. v. Balsys, a resident alien was told that “[i]f ... Balsys could demonstrate that any testimony he might give in the deportation investigation could be used in a criminal proceeding against him brought by the Government of either the United States or one of the States, he would be entitled to invoke the privilege.”  It would be strange if a non-citizen had a right to remain silent, but could not speak freely.

Likewise, the logic of another decision supports the notion that, while the Fourth Amendment does not apply to property belonging to non-citizens where that property is situated outside the territorial U.S., much of the rest of the Bill of Rights does.  In United States v. Verdugo-Urquidez, a Mexican citizen objected to a search of his Mexican property by Mexican police at the urging of the American DEA.  The Supreme Court said that the Fourth Amendment didn’t apply with logic like this:

That text, by contrast with the Fifth and Sixth Amendments, extends its reach only to “the people.” Contrary to the suggestion of amici curiae that the Framers used this phrase “simply to avoid [an] awkward rhetorical redundancy,” Brief for American Civil Liberties Union et al. as Amici Curiae 12, n. 4, “the people” seems to have been a term of art employed in select parts of the Constitution. The Preamble declares that the Constitution is ordained and established by “the people of the United States.” The Second Amendment protects “the right of the people to keep and bear Arms,” and the Ninth and Tenth Amendments provide that certain rights and powers are retained by and reserved to “the people.” See also U. S. Const., Amdt. 1 (“Congress shall make no law. . . abridging . . . the right of the people peaceably to assemble”) (emphasis added); Art. I, § 2, cl. 1 (“The House of Representatives shall be composed of Members chosen every second Year by the people of the several States”) (emphasis added). While this textual exegesis is by no means conclusive, it suggests that “the people” protected by the Fourth Amendment, and by the First and Second Amendments, and to whom rights and powers are reserved in the Ninth and Tenth Amendments, refers to a class of persons who are part of a national community or who have otherwise developed sufficient connection with this country to be considered part of that community.

Now, with that analysis in mind, look at the First Amendment:

Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.

You’ll notice the word “the people” doesn’t appear until it discusses the right of assembly, and that term “the people” might arguably apply to the right to petition the Government.  But the use, or the failure to use the term “the people” suggests it was intentional.  I mean, if the intention was to limit all of it to “the people,” it would be written more like this:

Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion over the people, or prohibiting the right of the people to engage in the free exercise thereof; or abridging the right of the people to freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.

Instead, we get an amendment that only speaks of limitations of power until the free assembly clause, and only then do they use language limiting who enjoys the right.

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Sidebar: Reading this, you might wonder “how does this limit the power of the president to censor people, or for that matter the states?  It only seems to limit Congress.”  The answer with relation to the Federal Government is that the Courts have said that the President (and the judiciary, for that matter) lacks the power to censor on his own, and Congress cannot grant that power to any other branch.  Meanwhile, with respect to the states, the Fourteenth Amendment has been interpreted to apply or “incorporate” most of the Bill of Rights to the states.  They call this the incorporation doctrine.

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Mind you, I am not saying that if the Soviet Union locks up a dissident for criticizing the government that the American First Amendment is violated.  What I am saying is that American government typically cannot try to control what a person says, period, whether you are a citizen or not, whether you are a legal immigrant or not, and whether you are standing on American soil or not.  Congress and the states cannot silence any person, anywhere.

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Sidebar: I do think there is room for a wartime exception—in other words, if we bombed Tokyo Rose off the air during World War II, we wouldn’t have violated her First Amendment rights.

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As for the courts, D.C. Circuit has said that the First Amendment doesn’t apply to foreigners at all and I will quote them at length, because I think I can show the problem with their analysis:

In those many decisions, the Supreme Court has drawn a fairly clear line: The government may exclude foreign citizens from activities “intimately related to the process of democratic self-government.” Bernal v. Fainter, 467 U.S. 216, 220, 104 S.Ct. 2312, 81 L.Ed.2d 175 (1984); see also Gregory v. Ashcroft, 501 U.S. 452, 462, 111 S.Ct. 2395, 115 L.Ed.2d 410 (1991); Cabell, 454 U.S. at 439-40, 102 S.Ct. 735. As the Court has written, “a State’s historical power to exclude aliens from participation in its democratic political institutions [is] part of the sovereign’s obligation to preserve the basic conception of a political community.” Foley, 435 U.S. at 295-96, 98 S.Ct. 1067 (internal quotation marks and citation omitted). In other words, the government may reserve “participation in its democratic political institutions” for citizens of this country. Id. When reviewing a statute barring foreign citizens from serving as probation officers, the Court explained that the “exclusion of aliens from basic governmental processes is not a deficiency in the democratic system but a necessary consequence of the community’s process of political self-definition.” Cabell, 454 U.S. at 439, 102 S.Ct. 735 (emphasis added). Upholding a statute barring aliens from teaching in public schools, the Court reasoned that the “distinction between citizens and aliens, though ordinarily irrelevant to private activity, is fundamental to the definition and government of a State.... It is because of this special significance of citizenship that governmental entities, when exercising the functions of government, have wider latitude in limiting the participation of noncitizens.” Ambach, 441 U.S. at 75, 99 S.Ct. 1589 (emphasis added). And in upholding a ban on aliens serving as police officers, the Court stated that, “although we extend to aliens the right to education and public welfare, along with the ability to earn a livelihood and engage in licensed professions, the right to govern is reserved to citizens.” Foley, 435 U.S. at 297, 98 S.Ct. 1067.

We read these cases to set forth a straightforward principle: It is fundamental to the definition of our national political community that foreign citizens do not have a constitutional right to participate in, and thus may be excluded from, activities of democratic self-government. It follows, therefore, that the United States has a compelling interest for purposes of First Amendment analysis in limiting the participation of foreign citizens in activities of American democratic self-government, and in thereby preventing foreign influence over the U.S. political process.

Applying the Supreme Court’s precedents, the question here is whether political contributions and express-advocacy expenditures — including donations to outside groups that in turn make contributions or express-advocacy expenditures, see Emily’s List v. FEC, 581 F.3d 1 (D.C.Cir.2009) — constitute part of the process of democratic self-government. In our view, the answer to that question is straightforward: Political contributions and express-advocacy expenditures are an integral aspect of the process by which Americans elect officials to federal, state, and local government offices. Political contributions and express-advocacy expenditures finance advertisements, get-out-the-vote drives, rallies, candidate speeches, and the myriad other activities by which candidates appeal to potential voters. See generally Buckley, 424 U.S. at 14, 96 S.Ct. 612. We think it evident that those campaign activities are part of the overall process of democratic self-government. Moreover, it is undisputed that the government may bar foreign citizens from voting and serving as elected officers. See Sugarman, 413 U.S. at 647-49, 93 S.Ct. 2842. It follows that the government may bar foreign citizens (at least those who are not lawful permanent residents of the United States) from participating in the campaign process that seeks to influence how voters will cast their ballots in the elections. Those limitations on the activities of foreign citizens are of a piece and are all “part of the sovereign’s obligation to preserve the basic conception of a political community.” Foley, 435 U.S. at 295-96, 98 S.Ct. 1067 (internal quotation marks omitted).

And as you can see, they are getting at exactly the questions I am exploring, but I think they are getting it fundamentally wrong. 

First, it is worth noting that the cases cited for the idea that aliens can be excluded from the political community dealt solely with state governments excluding non-citizens from being government officials, usually cops and once a teacher.  To stretch that the Supreme Court’s declaration that foreigners can be excluded from actually working for the government into the idea that they have no right to speak at all is ridiculous.

Second, the idea that only people who can vote can speak is simply not true.  Non-voters “participate” by speaking about elections all the time.  Children below the age of eighteen cannot vote, and yet nothing stops them from speaking their mind about who you should vote for.  Many states also ban felons from voting, but they are still allowed to speak, donate to candidates and parties and issue electioneering communications.  Likewise, green card holders can’t vote (except maybe in California), but the statute specifically exempts them from the limitations imposed on foreign nationals.  And for that matter, Citizens United allowed corporations to participate by issuing electioneering communications even though such artificial persons are not allowed to vote.  So the notion that only citizens capable of voting can tell us who to vote for is simply wrong.

Third, this opinion misunderstands the purpose of the First Amendment.  I agree that the primary purpose of the First Amendment is to serve democracy.  We are a republic.  Power ultimately resides in the citizens of the republic.  We choose ultimately the direction of this country.

But the right to make a choice is the right to make that choice voluntarily and intelligently, with the chance to receive information about that choice, and to hear people’s opinions about that choice.  That is what the First Amendment is for: to open up the floodgates of information so that the voting citizens can make up their minds about who or what to vote for.  This is not to say that the First Amendment’s free expression clauses only applies to political speech—its language encompasses art, for instance—but this is their primary reason for existence: to inform the people so their decisions in the political process are informed.

So, the right of Malala, illegal immigrants or Médecins Sans Frontières to speak isn’t about their right to participate in the American political process.  It’s about our rights, as citizens, to take in any information or views we want as we decide how to participate in the political process.  I am an American exceptionalist who believes that the world has more to learn from us than we do from it, but that doesn’t mean I won’t even listen to what a foreigner in a foreign land might have to say.  And even if I personally refused to listen to foreigners, I wouldn’t deny another person’s right to hear their opinions, because Americans have a right not to subscribe to my American exceptionalism views.  Thus the right of all people, including foreigners, not to be silenced by the American government isn’t about their right to speak, so much as our (the citizens of America’s) right to hear them.  And that is the most basic flaw in their analysis.

Finally, there is an additional problem when you exempt entire groups from the First Amendment.  You see, the First Amendment not only protects the right to speak, but the right not to speak, either.  As the Supreme Court has said “the right of freedom of thought protected by the First Amendment against state action includes both the right to speak freely and the right to refrain from speaking at all.”  So, if an illegal immigrant is not protected by the First Amendment at all, for instance, then Donald Trump can say to an illegal immigrant “either campaign for me, for free, or I will deport you.”  Rather than keeping the foreigners out of politics, it would make them vulnerable to being forced to help a particular side, which would distort our politics.

So, while that opinion is well-written, I think the D.C. Circuit is wrong and I don’t think their opinion will prove persuasive in the long run.  And I certainly think it is wrong as an original matter.

And it is worth noting that at least two courts have agreed that at least foreigners in America have First Amendment Rights, here and here.

Certainly, the strongest argument can be made for “free speech for foreigners” involves people present in the United States even if only temporarily or illegally.  Another function of freedom of expression is that it can call attention to problems.  Temporary workers might in fact be abused.  They might be subjected to unlawful working conditions, sexually harassed and so on.  Or maybe an illegal immigrant was pulled over by a cop and even though he offered no resistance, was unlawfully beaten by that cop.  Or maybe a person here on a tourist visa is the only witness to a Congressman receiving a bribe.  If these people are not protected by the First Amendment, then every single one of these people can be, consistent with the constitution, stopped from telling others what they have seen or experienced.  This might also mean injustices like the ones I outlined might persist and fester, until they explode into a riot.  In the name of domestic tranquility, they should at least have a chance to be heard.  A person who believes they have been wronged has a right to tell the citizens (who are the true sovereigns of this country), so that if they are right, we can redress it.

And if you only agree with that—that illegal immigrants, temporary workers and foreign tourists—have a right to speak, then this law is already overly broad.  And if you recall my last post, if a statute restricting speech is overly broad, it is unconstitutional.

But things start to get even worse when you start looking at the definition of Electioneering Communications found in 52 U.S.C. § 30104, where it says:

(3)       Electioneering communication For purposes of this subsection—

(A)       In general

(i)        The term “electioneering communication” means any broadcast, cable, or satellite communication which—

(I)        refers to a clearly identified candidate for Federal office;

(II)       is made within—

(aa)      60 days before a general, special, or runoff election for the office sought by the candidate; or

(bb)     30 days before a primary or preference election, or a convention or caucus of a political party that has authority to nominate a candidate, for the office sought by the candidate; and

(III)     in the case of a communication which refers to a candidate for an office other than President or Vice President, is targeted to the relevant electorate.

(ii)       If clause (i) is held to be constitutionally insufficient by final judicial decision to support the regulation provided herein, then the term “electioneering communication” means any broadcast, cable, or satellite communication which promotes or supports a candidate for that office, or attacks or opposes a candidate for that office (regardless of whether the communication expressly advocates a vote for or against a candidate) and which also is suggestive of no plausible meaning other than an exhortation to vote for or against a specific candidate. Nothing in this subparagraph shall be construed to affect the interpretation or application of section 100.22(b) of title 11, Code of Federal Regulations.

So, while that is a lot to take in, I think if you go slow you can pick apart most of it.  Most of it doesn’t suffer from the vagueness problems I have been mentioning, but I think subsection (iii) creates two problems for those defending these statutes.  First, its overbroad.  It says “in the case of a communication which refers to a candidate for an office other than President or Vice President, is targeted to the relevant electorate” which means that when you are talking about a candidate for President or Vice President, they are not going to look at whether the ad is targeted to the relevant electorate or not.  So imagine a Chinese citizen living in rural China sends out some leaflets that say that Donald Trump should be president.  Well, that has little chance of reaching even a single American citizen, let alone moving the needle to any appreciable degree in the election, and a regulation that prohibits that seems by definition to be overbroad.

But the second problem is that this transforms what previously was a content-neutral regulation into a regulation that discriminates based on content (but not viewpoint).  See my previous post for more discussion of that principle, but that means it has to survive the strict scrutiny test which requires that it be 1) narrowly tailored to serve 2) a compelling government purpose.  What is the compelling purpose in preventing rural Chinese from hearing a person’s opinion of the American Presidential election?  How is a law that would cover that scenario narrowly tailored?

That is something to keep in mind when the exceptions to that definition:

(B)       Exceptions The term “electioneering communication” does not include—

(i)        a communication appearing in a news story, commentary, or editorial distributed through the facilities of any broadcasting station, unless such facilities are owned or controlled by any political party, political committee, or candidate;

(ii)       a communication which constitutes an expenditure or an independent expenditure under this Act;

(iii)      a communication which constitutes a candidate debate or forum conducted pursuant to regulations adopted by the Commission, or which solely promotes such a debate or forum and is made by or on behalf of the person sponsoring the debate or forum; or

(iv)      any other communication exempted under such regulations as the Commission may promulgate (consistent with the requirements of this paragraph) to ensure the appropriate implementation of this paragraph, except that under any such regulation a communication may not be exempted if it meets the requirements of this paragraph and is described in section 30101(20)(A)(iii) of this title.

First, I would like to focus on subsection (i) which says “a communication appearing in a news story, commentary, or editorial distributed through the facilities of any broadcasting station, unless such facilities are owned or controlled by any political party, political committee, or candidate.”  So that would appear, for instance, to exempt every foreign broadcast news station—unless it is owned or controlled by any political party, political committee or candidate.

So first... wouldn’t that exempt the BBC?  Which is strange, because it seems that the general thrust of the laws I have been looking at is being afraid of foreign influence, especially from foreign governments.  The BBC—that is, the British Broadcasting Company—is state television.  So, they are saying it is okay for state television to endorse a candidate, but not a political party?  On the other hand, I tend to think that if China’s official state television endorses a candidate, that this would not fall outside of the exception in subsection (1) because it would be obviously controlled by a political party, the Communist Party.

Further, that exemption only applies to broadcast.  Traditionally, the term “broadcast” only refers to the transmission of television waves—you know, UHF and VHF.  It doesn’t typically refer to cable or satellite (even though both typically transmit through the air at some point). These exceptions also don’t on their face apply to printed newspapers, internet news sites, and so on, but then again the statute might not apply to those things at all, since the definition of “electioneering communications” requires that it be a “broadcast, cable, or satellite communication.”  As a general rule, that doesn’t include any of those other forms communication like printed newspapers, internet news sites, etc., except arguably when I am using a cable-based internet service, it might arguably be a “cable communication.”  Still, where is the sense in exempting that one kind of communication?

Further, a failure to cover something can be a constitutional problem, too.  As noted by the Supreme Court in FCC v. League of Women Voters of California, not only is overbreadth a problem in constitutional analysis, but so is underinclusiveness.  Mind you, it is not typically a violation of the First Amendment to fail to ban certain speech as long as that failure is content- and viewpoint-neutral, but it undermines the credibility of the government when it says “X is such a problem we must silence speech…  well, except this part of X, that’s totally not a big deal.”  Allowing Congress to regulate elections and election-related expression is inherently dangerous—there is a danger that under the guise of protecting democracy, they would instead subvert democracy to maintain their power.  Underinclusiveness is evidence that they are not motivated by protecting democracy—it undermines the sincerity of their avowed concerns.

Further, the underinclusiveness problem creates another issue: discrimination among speakers.  The fact is this law, as written, gives certain speakers “privileges” in the marketplace that others don’t enjoy—namely, the press.  So if the BBC runs an editorial endorsing a presidential candidate, that is legal.  But if Theresa May spends her own money on an ad exhorting Americans to vote for a certain candidate, that is forbidden.  Yet, what is the compelling reasons for allowing British State Television to speak freely, but not their Prime Minister?

Now it is worth taking a moment to clear up a misconception about the press and the First Amendment.  There is a clause that guarantees “freedom of the press” and it is popular in liberal circles to think that phrase is designed to protect the institutional press and us ordinary schmucks are not covered by that clause.

Of course, that whole idea can be defeated by Common Sense in conjunction with common sense.  You see, if that interpretation of the First Amendment was correct, then Thomas Paine’s Common Sense is not covered by the First Amendment.  After all, Common Sense was not published in the institutional press—it was just a pamphlet.  And yet common sense tells us that the Founders were thinking precisely of their own revolutionary experience when they wrote the First Amendment and thus Common Sense was probably exactly the kind of thing they would think was protected.  So common sense tells us that any interpretation that would leave Common Sense unprotected is wrong.  And for that matter, that entire interpretation of that clause was rejected in Citizens United.  No, freedom of the press belongs to everyone, whether you are part of the institutional press or not.

So, having established that every speaker is equally protected by the Fourteenth Amendment one has to look at the justification for excluding the non-press foreign national from the marketplace of ideas.  Fortunately, the Supreme Court has addressed the question of restrictions on speakers recently in the case of Packingham v. North Carolina, where the state had forbidden registered sex offenders from joining social media where children might be—as in Facebook, Twitter, and so on.  The Supreme Court noted that since the regulation appeared to be content- and viewpoint-neutral, the test would be whether it was narrowly tailored to serve a significant government interest (as opposed to a compelling government interest needed if it was not content-neutral).  But what interest would the government have in treating “the press” differently from any regular schmuck?  What significant interest is served by saying they should be treated special?  I cannot see any such purpose.

The other exception I want to focus on is found in subsection (iv).  This is what it says, again:

(iv)      any other communication exempted under such regulations as the Commission may promulgate (consistent with the requirements of this paragraph) to ensure the appropriate implementation of this paragraph, except that under any such regulation a communication may not be exempted if it meets the requirements of this paragraph and is described in section 30101(20)(A)(iii) of this title.

So basically, this lets the FEC create additional exceptions, so long as it doesn’t exempt any communication that “meets the requirements of this paragraph” and is described in another statute (which we will get to, I promise).

Which, Gosh, that sounds really questionable constitutionally.  Remember how I said that under-inclusiveness undermines their claim of a compelling interest.  Well, so does this.  I haven’t seen a case declaring this, but logic suggests it. It transforms their argument into “X is so important that we must suppress speech, except whatever the FEC decides isn’t that important after all.”

Apart from that, let’s take a look at those exceptions, which are found in this regulation:

(c)        The following communications are exempt from the definition of electioneering communication. Any communication that:

(1)       Is publicly disseminated through a means of communication other than a broadcast, cable, or satellite television or radio station. For example, electioneering communication does not include communications appearing in print media, including a newspaper or magazine, handbill, brochure, bumper sticker, yard sign, poster, billboard, and other written materials, including mailings; communications over the Internet, including electronic mail; or telephone communications;

(2)       Appears in a news story, commentary, or editorial distributed through the facilities of any broadcast, cable, or satellite television or radio station, unless such facilities are owned or controlled by any political party, political committee, or candidate. A news story distributed through a broadcast, cable, or satellite television or radio station owned or controlled by any political party, political committee, or candidate is nevertheless exempt if the news story meets the requirements described in 11 CFR 100.132(a) and (b);

(3)       Constitutes an expenditure or independent expenditure provided that the expenditure or independent expenditure is required to be reported under the Act or Commission regulations;

(4)       Constitutes a candidate debate or forum conducted pursuant to 11 CFR 110.13, or that solely promotes such a debate or forum and is made by or on behalf of the person sponsoring the debate or forum; or

(5)       Is paid for by a candidate for State or local office in connection with an election to State or local office, provided that the communication does not promote, support, attack or oppose any Federal candidate. See 11 CFR 300.71 for communications paid for by a candidate for State or local office that promotes, supports, attacks or opposes a Federal candidate.

(emphasis added).  Did you catch that?  The entire internet is exempted from this.  That is a pretty large exemption.  So if you are watching, Legion on FX, and the evil Russians run an ad saying vote for Trump, that is a crime.  But if you are watching Legion on Hulu, and the exact same ad runs, that is legal.  That does answer my previous question of whether cable internet is covered or not (it isn’t)—but holy crap, it exempts so much, it really makes you wonder what is the point.

And that again gets to that Packingham, issue: how is this narrowly tailored to serve a significant interest?  What is the significant interest in saying TV ads need to regulated while the entire Internet is not?  Indeed, in Packingham, the Supreme Court said that

While in the past there may have been difficulty in identifying the most important places (in a spatial sense) for the exchange of views, today the answer is clear. It is cyberspace — the “vast democratic forums of the Internet” in general ... and social media in particular. Seven in ten American adults use at least one Internet social networking service. Brief for Electronic Frontier Foundation et al. as Amici Curiae 5-6. One of the most popular of these sites is Facebook, the site used by petitioner leading to his conviction in this case. According to sources cited to the Court in this case, Facebook has 1.79 billion active users. Id., at 6. This is about three times the population of North America.

So if you are speaking to the Supreme Court, it would be hard to explain to them why “the most important place[] ... for the exchange of views” should be exempted but it was vitally important to suppress broadcast, cable and satelite.  Again, I am not saying that the internet shouldn’t be exempted, only that the broadcast, cable and satellite networks shouldn’t be regulated this way, either and its hard to justify their special treatment.

But we are not out of the woods yet.  The exception also can’t offend this part:

(iv)      any other communication exempted under such regulations as the Commission may promulgate (consistent with the requirements of this paragraph) to ensure the appropriate implementation of this paragraph, except that under any such regulation a communication may not be exempted if it meets the requirements of this paragraph and is described in section 30101(20)(A)(iii) of this title.

Now the easy part of this is what “is described in section 30101(20)(A)(iii) of this title” which is this:

a public communication that refers to a clearly identified candidate for Federal office (regardless of whether a candidate for State or local office is also mentioned or identified) and that promotes or supports a candidate for that office, or attacks or opposes a candidate for that office (regardless of whether the communication expressly advocates a vote for or against a candidate)

That’s relatively understandable.  But it also has to meet the requirement so “this paragraph” which raises the question: what does “this paragraph” refer to?

Look at the entire section regarding exceptions again:

(B)       Exceptions The term “electioneering communication” does not include—

(i)        a communication appearing in a news story, commentary, or editorial distributed through the facilities of any broadcasting station, unless such facilities are owned or controlled by any political party, political committee, or candidate;

(ii)       a communication which constitutes an expenditure or an independent expenditure under this Act;

(iii)      a communication which constitutes a candidate debate or forum conducted pursuant to regulations adopted by the Commission, or which solely promotes such a debate or forum and is made by or on behalf of the person sponsoring the debate or forum; or

(iv)      any other communication exempted under such regulations as the Commission may promulgate (consistent with the requirements of this paragraph) to ensure the appropriate implementation of this paragraph, except that under any such regulation a communication may not be exempted if it meets the requirements of this paragraph and is described in section 30101(20)(A)(iii) of this title.

So, is “this paragraph” a reference to subsection (iv)?  Because, bluntly, that subsection is not even a sentence, let alone a paragraph as the term is ordinarily used.  But then that would suggest this entire quoted subsection (B) is “this paragraph.”  Or maybe even more?

Further, the term “requirements of this paragraph” is non-sensical—the only requirements are those needed to qualify for an exception.  So it seems to translate to “if your exception meets the requirements for getting an exception it cannot be an exception…?”  Regardless of how expansively we interpret the term “this paragraph” the word “requirements” doesn’t make much sense.

Put them together, with what “is described in section 30101(20)(A)(iii) of this title” I mentioned a moment ago, and things get bizarre.  For instance, if you interpret “this paragraph” as including subsection (iii), then a candidate’s debate may not be exempted if it “meets the requirements of this paragraph and is described in section 30101(20)(A)(iii) of this title.”  So the requirements of that subsection of that paragraph, applied there, would mean that it would cover a candidate debate.  And as I just mentioned 52 U.S.C. § 30101(20)(A)(iii) describes:

a public communication that refers to a clearly identified candidate for Federal office (regardless of whether a candidate for State or local office is also mentioned or identified) and that promotes or supports a candidate for that office, or attacks or opposes a candidate for that office (regardless of whether the communication expressly advocates a vote for or against a candidate)

So that would mean that in a candidate debate, you either 1) cannot clearly identify the candidates, or 2) you must prohibit the candidates from “promoting or supporting a candidate” or “attack[ing] or oppos[ing] a candidate,” which kind of goes against the entire idea of a debate.  “I am a candidate for president, but I am indifferent about getting your vote!”—that would be absurd, and when reading ambiguous statutes, the courts avoid the absurd interpretation.  So that would suggest that “this paragraph” only means subsection (iv).

But at the same time, it is also absurd to read the phrase “this paragraph” to mean only subsection (iv), because it raises the question “what requirements?”  There didn’t seem to be any requirements in subsection (iv).  I suppose you could say the requirement is that is a regulation created by the FEC, but in statutory drafting, the more common phrase to use is “such regulations” instead of that “requirements” mess.  Still my gut says that the best reading is to limit it to subsection (iv), but a judge could easily read it differently.

In other words, this exception is a mess, which creates another void for vagueness problem.

Now, let’s go back to the issue of internet expression with a hypothetical.  Imagine that a foreigner, an evil Russian, ran an ad on Facebook saying “Vote for Bernie Sanders” in the crucial thirty days before a primary.  Would that be criminalized under the law?

Well, first, you have to ask if it is an electioneering communication at all.  Under § 30104(f)(3)(A)(i), it has to be on “broadcast, cable, or satellite communication.”  As I noted before, I am not sure whether an internet cable transmission counts as a “cable communication.”  But, if it does, the remaining requirements are met pretty clearly.

So, still in that hypothetical, we ask if an exception applies.  The only one that would seem to apply is the regulatory exception, where they said communications are excepted from the term “electioneering communication” if it is one that

Is publicly disseminated through a means of communication other than a broadcast, cable, or satellite television or radio station. For example, electioneering communication does not include communications appearing in print media, including a newspaper or magazine, handbill, brochure, bumper sticker, yard sign, poster, billboard, and other written materials, including mailings; communications over the Internet, including electronic mail; or telephone communications;

So that would seem to fall into the exception because it is internet communications.  Now, what about that exception to the exceptions I have been talking about above?

One view is that such a Facebook ad would be covered by exception to the exception (meaning it is covered by the statute, and doesn’t fall into any proper exception), because it is a communication arguably described in “this paragraph” even if we only interpret it to mean subsection (IV) and obviously it would be supporting a candidate.

But there is another radically different way to look at that regulatory exception: as not literally an exception, so much as an interpretation of § 30104(f)(3)(A)(i), which said that electioneering communications have to be on “broadcast, cable, or satellite communication.”  Look at how the regulation creating this “exception” reads.  It is literally saying that one exception is, more or less, “stuff not actually covered by the statute at all.”  Then it goes on to list some examples of what is not covered.  Some of those are obviously not covered.  A billboard or an actual printed newspaper is obviously not broadcast, cable, or satellite communication.  The only debatable part of that is exempting internet, email and phone communications (because there is such a thing as cable-based phone service).  And there is a doctrine that says that regulatory agencies can put out regulations that interpret what a term in a statute means, and courts will defer to those interpretations if the term is ambiguous in the statute.  So rather than really being seen as an exception that is subject to the “exception to the exceptions” subsection, it might instead be seen as an interpretation of the statute, which the courts are supposed to defer to.

The additional notion to consider in all of this is the doctrine of lenity.  This doctrine says that when dealing with an ambiguous criminal statute, courts should interpret it narrowly.  These statutes have criminal consequences, so that would seem to suggest that you have to interpret “cable” as not applying to the internet (or cable phones), under this approach, in order to narrowly interpret that term.

So, my gut says that in this hypothetical, that no crime was committed.  But I cannot be sure if a judge would see all of it the same way.

There are several bottom lines you can get, then, from that analysis.

First, is your brain hurting yet?  I tried to walk you slowly through that analysis, but as a trained lawyer who is used to reading statutes, that was difficult and you saw there were some parts of this that still don’t make full sense to me.  If you are a reader who doesn’t literally do this sort of thing for a living, what chance would you have to work through all that by yourself?  This goes to a larger criticism of the entire campaign finance structure: it makes it so that a novice has a very hard time navigating all of this.  So, as a practical matter, if you are running for political office, you have to hire a lawyer, thus incurring a cost many cannot ordinarily afford.  That might not be unconstitutional in and of itself, but it does seem wrong.  We are supposed to be a government “of the people,” in Lincoln’s immortal words, which suggests that it shouldn’t be hard for a regular person to run for office, and yet one effectively cannot run without hiring a lawyer.  It is decidedly against my interests as a lawyer to say this, but that is wrong and should change.

Second, that would seem to implicate the issue of vagueness.  If a trained lawyer has trouble figuring out what these statutes mean, what chance does a lay person have?

Add that to the other concerns—the fact that the statute is overbroad in its reach and underinclusive as well—and I believe that this statute is unconstitutional and that the courts will eventually see it as such and strike it down.

So, we are two for two on laws implicated by the Mueller “Russian” indictment.  But that is a “stacked” analysis.  I focused on the unconstitutional laws first to set the table for looking at the indictment as a whole, which is what I plan to do next.  So, stay tuned.  We are not quite done with this indictment.

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My wife and I lost our jobs due to the harassment of convicted terrorist (and adjudicated statutory rapist) Brett Kimberlin, including an attempt to get us killed and to frame me for a crime carrying a sentence of up to ten years.  I know that claim sounds fantastic, but if you read starting here, you will see absolute proof of these claims using documentary and video evidence.  If you would like to help in the fight to hold Mr. Kimberlin accountable, please hit the donation link on the right.  And thank you.

Follow me at Twitter @aaronworthing, mostly for snark and site updates.

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Disclaimer:

I have accused some people, particularly Brett Kimberlin, of reprehensible conduct.  In some cases, the conduct is even criminal.  In all cases, the only justice I want is through the appropriate legal process—such as the criminal justice system.  I do not want to see vigilante violence against any person or any threat of such violence.  This kind of conduct is not only morally wrong, but it is counter-productive.

In the particular case of Brett Kimberlin, I do not want you to even contact him.  Do not call him.  Do not write him a letter.  Do not write him an email.  Do not text-message him.  Do not engage in any kind of directed communication.  I say this in part because under Maryland law, that can quickly become harassment and I don’t want that to happen to him.

And for that matter, don’t go on his property.  Don’t sneak around and try to photograph him.  Frankly try not to even be within his field of vision.  Your behavior could quickly cross the line into harassment in that way too (not to mention trespass and other concerns).

And do not contact his organizations, either.  And most of all, leave his family alone.

The only exception to all that is that if you are reporting on this, there is of course nothing wrong with contacting him for things like his official response to any stories you might report.  And even then if he tells you to stop contacting him, obey that request.  That this is a key element in making out a harassment claim under Maryland law—that a person asks you to stop and you refuse.


And let me say something else.  In my heart of hearts, I don’t believe that any person supporting me has done any of the above.  But if any of you have, stop it, and if you haven’t don’t start.

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